analogy between mean and median [X validated]

A recent question on X validated was looking rather naïvely for the median being equal to the mean, as earlier questions there, but this made me realise a certain symmetry in the two notions, namely that the median ς is solution of the balance condition

\int_{-\infty}^\varsigma f(d)\text{d}x = \int^{+\infty}_\varsigma f(xd)\text{d}x

namely the areas under the density are equal, while the mean μ is solution of a parallel balance condition

\int_{-\infty}^\mu F(d)\text{d}x = \int^{+\infty}_\mu (1-F)(x)\text{d}x

which is an equality of the same kind, i.e., of areas under the cdf or its complement…. Courtesy of the general representation

\mathbb E[X] = \int_0^{\infty} (1-F)(x) \text dx - \int_{-\infty}^0 F(x) \text dx

The general problem of having the mean and median equal is not particularly interesting as it is a matter of parameterisation. For instance, using the cdf transform turns the random variate X into a Uniform F(X), with mean and median equal to ½.

2 Responses to “analogy between mean and median [X validated]”

  1. Gerard Letac's avatar
    Gerard Letac Says:

    ‘The median for an exponential family and the normal law’ Letac, Mattner Piccioni Stat and Pb Letters 133 p 38-41 ArXiv 1708. 05789
    considers that the conjecture : median=mean for an exponential family implies Gaussian . is difficult.

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